- 2 weeks ago
Prepare effectively for the CCRAS Staff Nurse Recruitment Exam with this complete playlist designed for nursing aspirants. Here you’ll find:
✅ MCQs with Explanations – Practice important multiple-choice questions with clear rationales.
✅ Nursing Subjects Covered – Medical-Surgical Nursing, Community Health, OBG, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Anatomy, Physiology & more.
✅ Previous Year Questions – Learn exam patterns and frequently asked questions.
✅ Quick Revision Videos – High-yield topics explained in a simple and concise way.
✅ Tips & Strategies – Boost your confidence and exam-taking skills.
Whether you’re just starting your preparation or revising before the exam, this playlist will help you strengthen your concepts, practice effectively, and score better. 💡
✅ MCQs with Explanations – Practice important multiple-choice questions with clear rationales.
✅ Nursing Subjects Covered – Medical-Surgical Nursing, Community Health, OBG, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Anatomy, Physiology & more.
✅ Previous Year Questions – Learn exam patterns and frequently asked questions.
✅ Quick Revision Videos – High-yield topics explained in a simple and concise way.
✅ Tips & Strategies – Boost your confidence and exam-taking skills.
Whether you’re just starting your preparation or revising before the exam, this playlist will help you strengthen your concepts, practice effectively, and score better. 💡
Category
🦄
CreativityTranscript
00:00Hi friends, welcome to the channel The Nurse. Here we are discussing about nursing MCQs with
00:07rationals that will be helpful for preparing CCRIS and in our upcoming CCRIS NORSET nursing
00:14officer examinations. We will move to the first question. Before that, if you are not subscribed
00:20to our channel, please subscribe. First question. A patient is prescribed furosomide that is LASIX
00:2940mg IV push, which nursing assessment is the most critical following administration? Monitoring
00:37for muscle cramps, assessing the IV site for infiltration, oscillating length sounds, measuring
00:44hourly urinal output. So as you know, LASIX is a loop diuretic, so measuring hourly urinal
00:53output is important after the administration of injection.
00:56Furosomide or LASIX is a potent loop diuretic. Its primary therapeutic effect is to promote
01:09diuresis, i.e. increasing urine output. The most direct and critical way to evaluate the
01:16drug's effectiveness and the patient's response is to measure urine output. While the other
01:24options are relevant, that is potential electrolyte imbalance, standard IV care, assessing for fluid
01:31overload resolution, they are not the most critical assessment directly after administration of
01:37LASIX injection. So primary assessment is urine output.
01:44Second question. When performing a dressing change for a patient with a wound training,
01:51purulent exudate, which personal protective equipment or PPE essential for the nurse to wear?
01:59So in this case, the nurse is handling a draining purulent wound. So there should be a sterile
02:19gown and sterile gloves. So a sterile gown and sterile gloves is needed for handling the wound.
02:27Correct answer is a sterile gown and sterile gloves. A purulent discharge or pus-like discharge indicates the
02:36presence of infection. Standard and conductive equations require gloves and a gown to protect the nurse's skin and
02:44clothing from contamination. Eye protection, that is goggle or face shield is essential to prevent any potential
02:52splashing of contaminated fluid into the mucous membranes of the eyes. So along with eye protection or face shield,
03:00if it is using, that also we can include if there is a chance of splashing of discharges or drainage.
03:08Stereo gloves and gowns are used for specific sterile procedures, but the primary concern here is infection control from the
03:18prulent material. So that is the answer. Stereo gloves and gown. Third question. A patient with heart failure is
03:29experiencing shortness of breath and has crackles audible in the lung bases. The nurse positions the
03:37patient with the head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees. This position is primarily intended to reduce
03:44peripheral edema, facilitate lung expansion, increase venous return to the heart, promote patient comfort.
03:55Correct answer. It facilitate lung expansion. While elevating the bed, head and of the bed to 90 degrees, it will facilitate
04:04facilitate lung expansion by pulling the diaphragm down due to gravity.
04:09The position is known as high fallows position, that is head and elevated to 90 degrees. In a patient with fluid overload,
04:21like heart failure, fluid accumulates in the lung bases, that is pulmonary edema, causing crackles and shortness of breath.
04:29Elevating head of the bed uses gravity to lower the diaphragm and allows for greater chest expansion,
04:39making it easier for the patient to breathe. While it may improve comfort, its primary purpose is a physiological
04:48intervention to improve respiration function. So that is the option D. So here correct answer is for leg expansion.
04:57Fourth question. A nurse is reviewing a patient's lab results. Which finding should the nurse recognize as
05:07the most classic sign of urinary tract infection? Proteinuria, hematuria, positive leukocyte esterase and nitrates,
05:17elevated specific gravity.
05:18Here correct answer is option C, positive leukocyte esterase and nitrates. So we can find out
05:28how to, what is the relevance of positive leukocyte esterase and nitrates in the case of UTI.
05:36A routine urinal analysis dipstick is a common screening tool for UTIs.
05:41Leukocyte esterase. Leukocyte esterase indicates the presence of white blood cells which signifies
05:48inflammation or infection. Nitrates indicates the presence of bacteria that converts nitrates into
05:57nitrites. Together these two positive findings are highly suggestive of a bacterial UTI.
06:04Hematuria and proteinuria can occur in a UTI but are not specific to it and can be caused by many other
06:16conditions also. Elevated specific gravity indicates concentrated urine.
06:22Then fifth question. The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 4mg IV to a postoperative
06:33patient for pain management. What is the most important nursing action immediately after administration?
06:41Place the cold, cold light within the patient's reach. Assess the patient's respiratory rate.
06:46Documents the medication administration. Check the patient's pain level on a 0 to 10 scale.
06:56Here correct answer is assess the patient's respiratory rate.
07:00Respiratory depression is the more common side effects due to morphine sulfate.
07:06So first and important assessment is the respiratory rate assessment.
07:10Morphine is an opioid analgesic. Its most serious and life threatening side effect is respiratory depression.
07:21Assessing the patient's respiratory rate before administration establishes a baseline but assessing
07:27it immediately after IV administration is critical to detect any adverse effects quickly as the IV route has
07:35a rapid onset. While all other actions are important parts of the nursing process patient safety
07:44monitoring the most dangerous side effect is the immediate priority. So that is about uh all other
07:51options are also important assessment findings but in the cases of morphine sulfate the priority
07:57assessment is assessment of respiratory rate. Then this sixth question is literally tricky questions. You need to see
08:08the value. A patient is admitted with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which arterial blood gas
08:15result would the nurse most likely expect to see? A pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg,
08:26bicarbonate 20 milliequilite per litre, PaO2 60 mmHg. pH is 7.48,
08:34pCO2 30 mmHg, bicarbonate 24, PaO2 80. pH is 7.35,
08:46pCO2 45, pCO2 45, hCO3 28, PaO2 70. pH 7.5, pCO2 48, hCO3 30, PaO2 60. So which of the following
09:03report report you may expect report report report you may expect for COPD patient?
09:10So here correct answer is
09:11pH 7.35, pCO2 45 mmHg, hCO3 28 milliequilite per litre, PaO2 70 mmHg.
09:24This is why I said it is a tricky question. So all other reports also you can find out because I will
09:32explain here in detail that time you will understand. pH 7.35 means that is normal pH
09:41only. PaCO2 45 mmHg means that is it is a normal pCO2 but it is in upper border level. 35 to 45 is
09:52reached up to upper borderline. Same time bicarbonate 28. 22 to 28 we can consider normal level.
10:06So in that time hCO3 also it is increased. So it indicates there is a compensatory mechanism
10:14because pCO2 is increased. Because pCO2 is increased that time
10:21bicarbonate is trying to compensate and because of pH is 7.35 we can tell it is fully compensated mechanism.
10:32pCO2 45 that is compensated with the bicarbonate level and that that leads to normal pH.
10:50So here it is a fully compensated respiratory acidosis we can see in case of COPD patients.
10:58In sometimes if acute acute cases we can see in respiratory acidosis in that condition option
11:07a will be correct. So here it is not correctly mentioned whether patient has respiratory acidosis.
11:14So we can assume patient has a fully compensated respiratory acidosis.
11:21In COPD patients often have a chronic inability to effectively exhale carbon dioxide leading to
11:31chronic respiratory acidosis. So if carbon dioxide is not able to
11:38excrete through breathe means that will retain in body that will lead to the number of carbonic acid
11:46levels increases that that is because of pCO2 is increases the gas exchange is not happening here
11:53in lungs. So that is what happening in chronic respiratory COPD condition.
12:02Then it if it is persisted for a period of time the kidney trying try to come compensate
12:10with increasing the bicarbonate level by retaining more bicarbonate. Therefore you would expect to see
12:16an elevated pCO2 and an elevated bicarbonate level because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
12:24is a chronic condition. So if pCO2 is elevated for a longer period kidney trying to compensate with
12:32increasing the bicarbonate level. The pH may be normal or slightly acidic indicating full or partial
12:42compensation. Here our pH is 7.35 that is normal level that is why it is called full fully
12:50compensated respiratory acidosis. If there is a slight variation into acidic that time it is called
12:58partial compensation. So that is the difference fully compensated and partial compensation.
13:05If pH is normal it is called fully compensated. If pH is increased to or decreased to that particular
13:16changes if in the cases of respiratory acidosis pH will be low. If pH is more means more than 7.45 means
13:26that is alkalosis. In COPD condition we can see acidosis only that is due to respiratory cause.
13:39Option A represents acute respiratory acidosis without compensation. Low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3.
13:50Option B represents respiratory alkalosis that will not be seen in COPD.
13:55Respiratory alkalosis indicates high pH, low PaCO2 which is not typical in COPD.
14:03Option D represents metabolic alkalosis, high pH, high HCO3 with a slightly high PaCO2 which is not the
14:14classic presentation of COPD. How it is called metabolic and respiratory respiratory that you can comment it
14:21below. Option 7. When assessing a patient's respiratory system the nurse hears low pitched bubbling sounds
14:33during inspiration that are not cleared with coffee. How should the nurse document this finding?
14:40The correct answer is Crackles.
14:52The correct answer is Crackles. Low pitched bubbling sounds during inspiration that are not cleared with
14:57coughing is called Crackles or Rails. Crackles or Rails are discontinuous sounds often described as
15:07fine that is high pitched or coarse, low pitched bubbling or popping sounds.
15:15They are caused by fluid in the airways that is in the case of pulmonary edema or pneumonia or by the
15:22opening of collapsed alveoli. They are primarily heard on inspiration and do not clear with coughing.
15:30Option A. Weases are high pitched musical sounds caused by air moving through a narrowed airway that is
15:41usually seen in the condition of asthma and COPD. Option B. Ronchi are low pitched snoring or gurgling sounds
15:51caused by secretions in the large airways. They often do change or clear with coughing.
15:58A. Pleural friction rub is a loud grating sound heard on inspiration and expiration caused by
16:07inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing together.
16:15Next eighth question. A patient with heart failure has been prescribed furosemide.
16:20So this is also a question related to lasics or furosemide. Which finding by the nurse best indicates the medication
16:29is having its desired therapeutic effect? Patient's heart rate is 62 beats per minute and regular.
16:37Patient's blood pressure is 110 by 70 mmHg. Patient's weight has decreased by 1.5 kg since yesterday.
16:46Patient's oxygen saturation is 98% on room air.
16:53So in the cases of heart failure, there will be chance of fluid retention, fluid overload.
17:00So after giving, so because of fluid overload, there will be chance of increasing body weight also.
17:07So after giving furosemide, there is a chance of increasing urine output. That is that the lasics is
17:15removing excess fluid from the body. So that will lead to patient's weight will reduce. So option C will
17:23be the right answer. The patient's weight has decreased by 1.5 kg since yesterday.
17:28Furosemide is a loop diuretic. It is primary purpose in heart failure is to promote excretion
17:37of sodium and water from the kidneys, reducing overall fluid volume. This leads to decrease in
17:45preload and a reduction in edema and pulmonary congestion. The most direct and objective measure of
17:52fluid loss is a decrease in daily body weight. While the other options A, B, D may improve as a result of
18:03successful diuresis. That is reduced fluid lessens the heart workload and improves gas exchange. They are
18:09not the direct effect of the diuretic and can be influenced by many other factors also.
18:15Ninth question. The nurse is reviewing ECG strip of a patient and notes a rhythm that has no consistent
18:25P waves, an irregularly irregular ventricular rate and a QRS complex of normal duration. The nurse interprets
18:36this rhythm as sinus tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, third degree heart block.
18:48The correct answer here atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation QRS complex will be there as a normal
18:57and it will affect the P wave. So we can see the explanation here. The classic triad of atrial
19:04fibrillation that includes absence of P waves due to chaotic atrial depolarization, irregularly irregular
19:14RR intervals. There may be intervals may be changed during the RR and the RR complex, QRS complex will be
19:24normal. So these are the three normal findings we can see during the time of atrial fibrillation.
19:32Absence of P wave, irregularly irregular RR interval, normal QRS complex.
19:40So these are the five findings that we can see in atrial fibrillation and we need to take immediate
19:46care. A sign option A that is sinus tachycardia has a normal P wave before every QRS complex,
19:54a regular rhythm and write more than 100 beats per minute. Option B. Verticular tachycardia has wide
20:03visire QRS complex that is more than 0.12 seconds and usually a regular rhythm.
20:12Option D. Third degree heart block or complete heart block shows no relationship between P waves and
20:22QRS complex that is AV dissociation but the P2P and R2R intervals are typically regular by themselves.
20:31So these are the options and their explanation.
20:39Question number 10. NS is caring for a patient with a suspected bleeding,
20:43Peptic ulcer which finding would be the most urgent indicator of possible hypovolemic shock.
20:48Hemoglobin 10.2 gram per deciliter, complaint of heartburn one hour after eating,
20:58melina that is black terry stools, orthostatic hypotension that is a drop in blood pressure
21:04when moving from lying to standing. The correct answer is orthostatic hypotension that will be
21:12indicating of hypovolemic shock. Orthostatic hypotension example, a drop in systolic BP of
21:2120 mmHg or more than upon standing is a key clinical sign of significant volume depletion.
21:31It indicates that a body cannot compensate for postional changes due to low blood volume,
21:37making it a more urgent and immediate indicator of developing shock than lab values or other symptoms.
21:47Option A. A low hemoglobin indicates blood loss but is a lagging indicator.
21:52It may not drop immediately until hemodilation occurs.
21:58Heartburn is a common symptom of Peptic ulcer disease but is not indicative of shock.
22:03Melina confirms a GA bleed is occurring but does not by itself quantify the degree of volume loss.
22:12A patient can have melina and she will be hemodynamically stable.
22:19Question 11. A patient with end-stage liver disease presents with confusion,
22:24asterixis i.e. flapping tremor of hands and elevated serum ammonia levels.
22:31The nurse identifies these as signs of hepatic encephalopathy, hepato-renal syndrome,
22:38portal hypertension, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis i.e. SBP.
22:45Correct answer is hepatic encephalopathy. In hepatic encephalopathy there will be confusion
22:52and flapping tremor or asterixis and increased serum ammonia levels.
23:00Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication of liver failure.
23:05The liver's inability to metabolize ammonia, a by-product of protein digestion and bacteria in
23:11the gut leads to its accumulation in the blood which is toxic to the brain. Key signs include mental
23:18status changes i.e. confusion, asterixis and fetor hepaticus i.e. musty breath order.
23:31Option A portal hypertension is increasing the pressure in the portal venous system which causes
23:37complications like varices and ascites but not directly these neurological symptoms.
23:46Hepato-renal syndrome is functional kidney failure secondary to liver disease presenting
23:51with oliguria and rising creatinine not neurological symptom.
23:56SBP is an infection of the ascetic fluid presenting with fever, abdominal pain and
24:02elevated WBC count in these ascetic fluids. So we will move to the 12th question. A 9-month-old
24:11infant is brought to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. Which finding would the nurse be most
24:17concerned about? So here we need to focus on developmental milestones. So options we can see.
24:25The infant exhibits stranger anxiety. The infant does not sit unsupported. The infant has a closed
24:34antidepressant. The infant bubbles but says no clear words.
24:43The correct answer is infant does not sit unsupported. Usually sitting with unsupported happens
24:51at the months of eight. So if it is not happened. So that is a developmental that indicates a developmental delay
24:59in that child.
25:03So we can see the explanation here. Developmental milestones. A key part of pediatric nursing in
25:08assessing developmental milestones. Most infants can sit without support by six to eight months of age.
25:16Not achieving this by eight to nine months is a potential red flag for developmental delay and
25:23warrants further investigation. Option A Stranger anxiety is a normal social or emotional milestone
25:31that begins around six to eight months. The antidepressant typically closes between 12 to 18 months
25:40crossing by nine months is early but can be normal. It is not an immediate cause for concern like a missed
25:49motor milestone. Option D. Bubbling is expected at this stage. Clear words
25:55mama, dada with meaning are not typically expected until around 12 months.
26:01So that is about this question. So if a baby is not sitting unsupported means that is a developmental delay
26:12and other options we can expect at the age of nine months.
26:1613th question. The mother of a two-year-old child with a suspected diagnosis of meningitis reports,
26:27the child has a high fever and is difficult to comfort. Which action should the nurse to take first?
26:35Place the child in a quiet, dimly light room. Administer the prescribed antipyretic immediately.
26:43Encourage the mother to cuddle and rob the child. Prepare the child for a number function.
26:52Correct answer is a Place the child in a quiet, dimly light room.
26:57Priority setting. Airway, breathing, circulation plus neurological here.
27:05Meningitis involves inflammation of the meninges that causes photophobia and irritability.
27:13The priority nursing intervention is to minimize the stimuli that is
27:17noise and light to reduce intracranial pressure and discomfort.
27:22This provides non-pharmacological comfort and safety first.
27:26Then only we can move to pharmacological intervention.
27:32While reducing fever is important, it is not the immediate first action.
27:37Creating a calming environment takes precedence.
27:41Although comforting is important, cuddling and rocking may overstimulate the child and increase agitation and pain.
27:52Preparing for a lumbar puncture is a necessary medical procedure,
27:55but it is not the nurse's first independent action.
27:58The nurse must first stabilize the child and minimize harm.
28:02So, in the case of meningitis, we should provide a common quiet environment for child.
28:11And child may have photophobia.
28:13So, we need to reduce the light and also we can reduce the sound.
28:18So, visitors are reduced in the case of meningitis child because it may further increases the irritability.
28:32Also, there is a chance of spreading of infection.
28:35The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack.
28:44Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
28:47Teach the client about the fight or flight response.
28:50Administer PRN or SOS anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
28:55Stay with the client and speak in a calm, reassuring voice.
28:59Encourage the client to identify triggers for a panic attack.
29:05Correct answer here.
29:07Stay with the client and speak in a calm, reassuring voice.
29:10Priority setting i.e. safety and de-escalation.
29:16During a panic attack, the client is overwhelmed by fear and may feel like they are dying.
29:23They cannot process complex information.
29:27Option C is the first and most important action.
29:31Because the nurse's presence provides safety and prevents isolation.
29:36A calm, reassuring voice can help ground the client and model regaining control.
29:43This is a de-escalation technique.
29:47Option A and D are educational and therapeutic interventions,
29:51but they are appropriate after the attack has subsided.
29:56Not during the acute phase.
29:58The client cannot learn or explore triggers while in state of panic condition.
30:03Option B, administer medication may be appropriate, but it is not the first independent nursing action.
30:13The nurse has to get the order from doctor, then only we can administer medication.
30:18The nurse should first use their presence and communication skills.
30:22Medication takes time to work.
30:26So that is about today's video.
30:27If you have any doubts, you can ask in comment section.
30:30So thank you for watching this video.
30:33And also, please share with your friends.
30:36And please like and subscribe this channel.
Recommended
13:43
|
Up next
18:30
31:09
15:56
23:11
28:28
12:52
17:28
12:22
10:05
8:06
3:13
7:36
6:58
7:52
5:49
23:20
20:59
11:29
Be the first to comment